So...if an owner is abusing a slave, is the only recourse a slave-initiated complaint? Can someone else make a complaint against an abusive owner?
EDIT: How does this work if the person in debt is not a citizen? Say someone comes over on a work visa, and it expires, and one thing leads to another that leads to said person acquiring the type of debt that would lead to servitude -- if they're British citizens, would they be deported, or become the property of commerce?
no subject
EDIT: How does this work if the person in debt is not a citizen? Say someone comes over on a work visa, and it expires, and one thing leads to another that leads to said person acquiring the type of debt that would lead to servitude -- if they're British citizens, would they be deported, or become the property of commerce?